European countries where Jews were allowed to exist in 1500.


Why were they banned?

Crimea had a significant population of Turkic-speaking Jews in 1500

This comment section is going to be wild. Can’t wait.

Though they were banned in England there is significant evidence that many never left or converted during the time they were banned. I’m sure that similar situations were happening in other countries.

it’s difficult for Lithuania (the map) – there were a lot of jews there who were expelled in 1495 by Grand Duke of Lithuania but then he became the king of Poland as well in 1501, and so the jews were allowed to return in 1503 – a ruling which affected Lithuania as well as the same monarch was ruling both.

It’s funny seeing how that area of Lithuania is like the most Jewish part of the world just a few hundred years later

they always tell us there was antisemitism but they never tell us why

Kinda disgusted by the comments in this thread. No conspiracies, no ancient astronaut theory, no entertainment value. Lame.

Queue the 1000 “ThiS cOmmMent SecTion Is Gonn bE WilDddd XDdddd” spam comments. When nothing ever happens and all of the discussion is rational and pleasant. Grow up.

Its insane that they survived for so many years.

The Khanate had a large Turkic speaking Jewish community in both Crimea and other parts of Central Asia. So did the Muscovite areas to my knowledge.

I’m sure every single one of these countries had 0 reason to kick them out

And when the countries that are green eventually did too I’m sure it was for 0 reason also

God bless Israel

yh the map is wrong, on modern day Italy they were expelled before Spain.
Thats a reason of columbus being genovese theory is wrong, cuz in Genova jews were expelled long ago

Jews were expelled from Iberia along with Moslems starting 1492. Many moved to north Africa, the Ottoman Empire, and central Europe.

ah yes, this is considered to be the beginning of the Spanish golden age. after the union of Castile and Aragon (why tf they shown to be different countries here) and after the discovery of the Americas. Spain was basically straight uphill from here until the mid 1600s besides the loss of the Armada in 1588

109 countries. 110 even.

Sorry for my poor knowledge on European history, but I thought it’s just nazis who hated jews? Why france and england hated jews back then?

portugal specifically makes me so upset. spain (which was united by 1500 for what it’s worth, so this map is wrong) expelled their jews in 1492 immediately after unification, and when several of those jews went west to portugal, they lasted all of four years before king manuel of portugal decided he really needed to marry into the spanish royal family to secure his lineage’s rule over potentially the entire peninsula, so he gave in to the demands of the spanish royals that he expel the jews and muslims just as they had

he knew this wasnt a good idea because even if the catholic population didnt like jews they didnt feel as threatened by them as they did the cristãos-novos because better to hate the jew you know than the christian who might secretly be a jew still, and the jews occupied a lot of important positions in the court and the economy so its not like their absence wouldn’t be noticed, but he went with it anyway because dynastic lineage was more important, and maybe the jews wouldn’t *all* leave surely most will just convert instead

surprise they didn’t want to convert and would rather leave so he closed the lisbon harbors and even had jewish children kidnapped and sent to christian families to be raised as christians, any jews who refused to pay taxes in protest were deported to são tomé and príncipe, and nine years later in 1506 a huge pogrom happened in lisbon that killed at least 500 and as many as 4000 cristãos-novos. only THEN did the king decide maybe they should be allowed to leave

he didn’t even get his wish out of the marriage with spain. even worse, one of his heirs he had with his SECOND spanish wife (because the first died in childbirth and their kid shortly after) ended up being empress consort of charles v of holy roman emperor fame, and through him the mother of philip ii of spain, who in 1580 used the fact he was manuel’s grandson to declare a claim to the portuguese throne, which he got, and spain ended up ruling the portuguese empire for the next 60 years

he had the jews expelled then forcibly converted, his successor set up the portuguese inquisition to further discriminate against them, and all he got out of it was a dynastic crisis 80 years later that favored the spanish and heralded the beginning of the end for the portuguese empire. in a way he did get his wish, the peninsula was definitely united under his direct descendant

Now that the genocide in Gaza is not on the news, bots started spamming content to guilt-trip europeans

Mihi hoc satis ironicum est